Pharmacy Technician PTCB Practice Test #1
Welcome to Pharmacy Technician PTCB Test #1. These are multiple choice problems, which will simulate the PTCB exam. Best of luck,
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Question 1 |
How many grams/liter of sodium chloride are in 250 mLs of a 0.9% sodium chloride solution?
A | 0.9 grams/liter Hint: 0.9% = 0.9 grams/100 mL |
B | 9 grams/liter Hint: Correct! |
C | 90 grams/liter Hint: 0.9% = 0.9 grams/100 mL |
D | 0.09 grams/liter Hint: 0.9% = 0.9 grams/100 mL |
Question 1 Explanation:
A solution of 0.9% = 0.9 grams/100 mL. This translates to 9 grams/liter OR 9 mg/mL. (One quick trick is to just move the decimal over to the right by one digit, and memorize that it is g/L or mg/mL). Also, don't get stuck on extra information, such as the 250 mL, it is irrelevant in this question.
Question 2 |
Tapentadol (Nucynta-TM) is classified in what controlled substance class?
A | C-II Hint: Yes, this is one that people forget about. It is a new drug on market that is classified as a C-II. |
B | C-III Hint: It is not a C-III |
C | C-IV Hint: It is not a C-IV |
D | C-V Hint: It is not a C-V |
Question 2 Explanation:
Tapentadol is often missed as a C-II. many people want to place it in a lower controlled substance class. So, do not make this mistake.
Question 3 |
Which one of the following is the brand name for valsartan, an angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB) used in hypertension?
A | Atacand Hint: No, this is candesartan |
B | Cozaar Hint: No, this is losartan |
C | Avapro Hint: No, this is irbesartan |
D | Diovan Hint: Yes, that is correct |
Question 4 |
Which of the following is NOT a beta-blocker medication?
A | metoprolol Hint: No, this is a beta-blocker |
B | amlodipine Hint: Yes, this is not a beta-blocker, it is a calcium channel blocker. |
C | carvedilol Hint: No, this is a beta-blocker |
D | propranolol Hint: No, this is a beta-blocker |
Question 4 Explanation:
Remember, all beta-blockers end with olol. The exception is carvedilol, which uses an ilol (sorry, I did not do the naming). As a little bit of extra knowledge, carvedilol also has some alpha blocking activity, so maybe the fact that it is slightly different in the naming makes sense.
Question 5 |
What federal legislation made it a requirement that patients be offered pharmacist counseling on outpatient medication fills?
A | Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPPA) of 1996 Hint: No, this was the one that increased patient privacy. |
B | Prescription Drug Marketing Act of 1987 Hint: No, this dealt with drug reimportation and drug samples. |
C | Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990 (OBRA-90) Hint: Correct! |
D | Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) of 1976 Hint: No, this dealt with solid and hazardous waste |
Question 5 Explanation:
OBRA-90, as it is affectionately called is the Act that requires pharmacist to council (or at least the patient be offered pharmacist counseling).
Question 6 |
What is the name for the route of medication delivery that means to "place under tongue."
A | Sublingual (SL) Hint: Correct! |
B | Oral or peroral (PO) Hint: No, this is by mouth, but swallowed. |
C | Buccal Hint: No, this is placed in cheek and allowed to dissolve or be absorbed through mucosa (which is close to the route you are looking for, but different). |
D | Intravenous (IV) Hint: No, this is injected into blood stream via a vein. |
Question 6 Explanation:
Sublingual is under the tongue. A common example is nitroglycerin tablets.
Question 7 |
Which of the following medication is an oral anticoagulant?
A | Amiodarone (Cordarone) Hint: No, this is an antiarrhythmic. |
B | Metoprolol (Lopressor, Toprol) Hint: No, this is a beta-blocker for controlling blood pressure. |
C | Torsamide (Demadex) Hint: No, this is a diuretic. |
D | Warfarin (Coumadin) Hint: Correct! |
Question 7 Explanation:
Warfarin is one of the most common anticoagulants on the market. It is used to prevent blood clots in patients at risk of forming blood clots, which can dislodge from their location and cause life threatening injury.
Question 8 |
Which of the following diuretics is a loop diuretic?
A | Hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide, HCTZ) Hint: No, this is a thiazide diuretic. |
B | Spironolactone (Aldactone) Hint: No, this is a potassium sparing diuretic. |
C | Furosemide (Lasix) Hint: Correct! |
D | Acetazolamide (Diamox) Hint: No, this is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor type diuretic. |
Question 8 Explanation:
Furosemide (Lasix), bumetanide (Bumex), and torsemide (Demadex) are your main loop diuretics. Loop diuretics are your most potent diuretics for pulling fluid out of the body through urination.
Question 9 |
What does the abbreviation KVO stand for?
A | Keep vein open Hint: Correct! |
B | Kilograms of Vaseline Hint: No, that would be a lot of Vaseline and very messy. |
C | Kinetics of viscosity Hint: No, I completely made that up and you fell for it. |
D | Kill vampires on sight!!! Hint: No, but I like it!!! Go Jacob! |
Question 9 Explanation:
Keep vein open or KVO is used for IV infusions where the physician wants to keep the IV fluid running at a low rate to just keep the vein it is infusing into open (somewhere around 10-20 mL/hour).
Question 10 |
What does the abbreviation AD stand for?
A | Anno Domino Hint: No, well yes it does when it comes to annotating AD or BC in years, but on a prescription it means something else. |
B | Right Ear Hint: Correct! |
C | Atopic Dermatitis Hint: No, well yes it can mean that; however, on a prescription that is not what they mean. |
D | Albus Dumbledore Hint: No, well yes again, but probably not what the doctor wants. However, wizards and alchemy are not too far off from the apothecary or pharmacist. Things that make you go hmmmmmm. |
Question 10 Explanation:
AD does stand for right ear. AS is left ear, and AU is both ears. The A is latin for Auris or ear and the D is latin for dextra or right.
Question 11 |
Which drug class has a common ending of -olol?
A | Angiotensin Receptor Blockers (ARBs) Hint: No, they commonly end with -sartan. |
B | Beta-Blockers Hint: Yes, that is correct. |
C | Diuretics Hint: No, but each sub-class of diuretics have similar endings (eg, the Loop diuretics often end with -ide) |
D | Angiotensin Converting Enzyme Inhibitors (ACE Inhibitors) Hint: No, they commonly end with -pril. |
Question 11 Explanation:
Beta-Blockers with the exception of carvedilol end with -olol, and -ilol is not that far off.
Question 12 |
What is the common acronym for the law that requires healthcare employees and companies to protect patient healthcare information (PHI) from inappropriate disclosure?
A | PPACA Hint: No, this is Obamacare. |
B | OBRA-90 Hint: No, this is the law that requires patient counseling. |
C | PRIV-20 Hint: No, I made that up. |
D | HIPAA Hint: Yes, HIPAA is our patient privacy law that requires us to be very careful about disclosing patient information. |
Question 12 Explanation:
You will definitely learn more about HIPAA at any position you take in a pharmacy. Please take it seriously, because violating HIPAA is an offense for which you can be fired.
Question 13 |
Levofloxacin (Levaquin) is in which antibiotic class?
A | Penicillin Hint: No, it is not a penicillin or related to the penicillin class. |
B | Quinolone or Fluoroquinolone Hint: Yes, you are correct. |
C | Carbapenem Hint: No, most of them end with . . .penem. |
D | Cephalosporin Hint: No, it is not a cephalosporin. |
Question 13 Explanation:
Quinolones or Fluoroquinolones often end in . . .floxacin. Other examples include ciprofloxacin, moxifloxacin, and gatifloxacin.
Question 14 |
What is the Chapter in the United States Pharmacopeia (USP) that provides guidance and information surrounding sterile compounding of medications?
A | 106 Hint: No, this number is often referred to as DEA 106, and is the form you submit to the DEA when you have a loss of controlled substances. |
B | 222 Hint: No, this number is often referred to as DEA 222, and is the form you use to order controlled substance CII medications. |
C | 795 Hint: No, USP 795 is for non-sterile compounding. |
D | 797 Hint: Yes, USP 797 is the chapter that refers to sterile compounding (I have read it a few times and it is great for going to bed). |
Question 14 Explanation:
USP 797 is very important for medication sterile compounding. It details expectations for sterile compounding as well as beyond-use dates for finished products. Most states have adopted USP 797 as a requirement by law.
Question 15 |
When ordering CII controlled substances, what is the DEA form used?
A | DEA 222 Hint: Yes, the DEA 222 is the controlled substance ordering form for CIIs. |
B | DEA 106 Hint: No, this is used to to report loss of controlled substances. |
C | DEA 41 Hint: No, this is used to notify the DEA of the need to dispose/destroy of controlled substances. |
D | DEA 420 Hint: No, I do not think it exists. 420 is often used as slang for those young whipper snappers to inhale cannabis. |
Question 15 Explanation:
In addition to the DEA 222 form, a pharmacy may use CSOS to order their CII controlled substances. CSOS is basically an electronic DEA 222.
Question 16 |
How many refills can a scheduled II (CII) prescription be given?
A | 0 Hint: Yes, you cannot have refills on a CII |
B | 1 Hint: No, a CII cannot be refilled |
C | 5 Hint: No, a CII cannot be refilled |
D | 11 Hint: No, a CII cannot be refilled |
Question 16 Explanation:
Scheduled II (CII) medications cannot have refills. This is covered in the Controlled Substance Act of 1970.
Question 17 |
Which of the following is the correct translation for the following sig.? 1 tab PO QID PRN N/V
A | Take 1 tablet by mouth daily as needed for nervousness. Hint: No, QID and N/V are not translated correctly |
B | Take 1 tablet by mouth four times daily as needed for nervousness. Hint: No, N/V is not translated correctly |
C | Take 1 tablet by mouth daily as needed for nausea and vomiting. Hint: No, QID is not translated correctly |
D | Take 1 tablet by mouth four times daily as needed for nausea and vomiting. Hint: Yes, that is correct! You are smarter than you look (just kidding). |
Question 17 Explanation:
Abbreviations are a critical part of our job. If you ever have a doubt about what an abbreviation means, consult a pharmacist.
Question 18 |
Which of the following dilutions is the most concentrated?
A | 5% Hint: No, try again |
B | 50% Hint: Yes, that is correct |
C | 0.5% Hint: no, this is the second to the lowest concentration |
D | 0.05% Hint: no, this is the most dilute of them all |
Question 18 Explanation:
When it comes to concentration and percents, the higher the number the more concentrated it is.
Question 19 |
How many tablespoonfuls are in 60 mL?
A | 1 Hint: No, one tablespoonful is 15 mL |
B | 2 Hint: No, one tablespoonful is 15 mL |
C | 4 Hint: Yes, one tablespoonful is 15 mL |
D | 12 Hint: No, one tablespoonful is 15 mL |
Question 19 Explanation:
A tablespoonful is 15 mL, so 4 x 15 mL=60 mL.
Question 20 |
The use of propranolol and albuterol together produces what type of drug interaction?
A | Duplicate therapy Hint: No, they are not the same therapies |
B | Agonist with Antagonist Hint: Yes, propranolol is a beta-blocker and albuterol is a beta-agonist (stimulator) |
C | Both are highly protein bound Hint: No, they are not both highly protein bound |
D | They both use the same metabolic pathway Hint: No, they do not substantially use the same metabolic pathway |
Question 20 Explanation:
Although both drugs can interact with eachother, even more troublesome is that they can affect the disease states they each cover in a negative way. For instance, too much propranolol (used for heart rate control or high blood pressure) can cause breathing difficulty in someone with asthma (the condition that albuterol treats).
Question 21 |
What does FDA stand for?
A | Federal Drug Agency Hint: No, try again |
B | Federal Disease Administration Hint: No, not even close |
C | Food and Drug Administration Hint: Yes, you got it! |
D | Food and Drug Association Hint: No, it is not |
Question 21 Explanation:
The FDA is the Food and Drug Administration.
Question 22 |
The oral product codeine (by itself) is in which controlled substance schedule?
A | I Hint: No, it is not a CI |
B | II Hint: Yes, it is a CII |
C | III Hint: No, it is not a CIII when given alone |
D | V Hint: No, it is not a CV when given alone |
Question 22 Explanation:
When codeine is given alone it is a CII. When mixed in a tablet form with acetaminophen it is a CIII, and when in a cough syrup mixed with other ingredients in a dilute form it can be a CV.
Question 23 |
How many days will the following prescription last? #60, ii tabs PO TID
A | 30 days Hint: No, you did bad math |
B | 60 days Hint: No, you did bad math |
C | 20 days Hint: No, you did bad math |
D | 10 days Hint: Yes, that is correct |
Question 23 Explanation:
Two tabs three times/day is 6 tabs/day. So, 60 tabs will last 10 days.
Question 24 |
Which of the following medications is not used to treat nausea?
A | nadolol Hint: yes, it is a beta-blocker |
B | promethazine Hint: no, this is used to treat nausea |
C | ondansetron Hint: no, this is used to treat nausea |
D | metoclopramide Hint: no, this is used to treat nausea |
Question 24 Explanation:
Nadolol is not a nausea treating medication. The other three are all nausea medications from different drug classes.
Question 25 |
The doctor orders "clindamycin 300 mg Q6H x 14 days, QS" - Your pharmacy only carries 150 mg capsules, how many do you need to dispense to fill the entire prescription?
A | 56 Hint: No, did you double the quantity for the 2 caps per dose |
B | 112 Hint: Yes, you rock! |
C | 28 Hint: No, try again |
D | 88 Hint: No, huh - you did some really bad math |
Question 25 Explanation:
Since you only have 150 mg and each dose is 300 mg, you need 2 capsules per dose 4 times/day or 8 capsules per day. 8 x 14 = 112 capsules.
Question 26 |
What is the generic name for Xarelto?
A | Dabigatran Hint: No, that is Pradaxa |
B | Rivaroxaban Hint: Yes, that is correct. |
C | Amiodarone Hint: No, that is Cordarone |
D | Warfarin Hint: No, that is Coumadin |
Question 26 Explanation:
Rivaroxaban (Xarelto) is a new factor Xa inhibitor used to prevent clots after knee and hip replacement surgery.
Question 27 |
What is the brand name for metronidazole?
A | Flagyl Hint: Yes, that is correct |
B | Levaquin Hint: No, that is levofloxacin |
C | Rocephin Hint: No, that is ceftriaxone |
D | Cleocin Hint: No, that is clindamycin |
Question 27 Explanation:
Metronidazole (Flagyl) is an antibiotic used to treat mainly anaerobic infections.
Question 28 |
What is the generic name for Toprol XL?
A | Carvedilol Hint: No, that is Coreg |
B | Metoprolol tartrate Hint: No, that is close, but the tartrate is Lopressor |
C | Propranolol Hint: No, that is Inderal |
D | Metoprolol succinate Hint: Yes, you are correct |
Question 28 Explanation:
Metoprolol succinate (Toprol XL) is a beta blocker used to treat hypertension and heart failure. Do not confuse the salt succinate with tartrate (which is Lopressor).
Question 29 |
What is the brand name for furosemide?
A | Bumex Hint: No, that is bumetanide |
B | HCTZ Hint: No, that is hydrochlorothiazide |
C | Lasix Hint: Yes, that is correct |
D | Edecrin Hint: No, that is ethacrynic acid |
Question 29 Explanation:
Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic used to remove excess fluid from the body.
Question 30 |
What controlled substance class does diphenoxylate/atropine (Lomotil) belong to?
A | CII Hint: No, try again |
B | CIII Hint: No, try again |
C | CIV Hint: No, try again |
D | CV Hint: Yes, that is correct |
Question 30 Explanation:
Diphenoxylate/atropine (Lomotil) is used to treat diarrhea. It is very constipating and does not have a lot of abuse potential, and is therefore a Class V controlled substance.
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